Author: tdpel

Cut-off marks are the minimum scores candidates must have obtained in 2021 UTME to be able to participate in the Post-UTME screening exercise of a particular school.

UTME candidates seeking admission into various public universities are advised to carefully go through the list of schools and check the cut-off mark for their school of choice.

Federal and State Universities and their JAMB cut-off marks for 2021/2022 Post-UTME exercise

Rivers State University of Science and Technology (RSUST): 160
Bayero University, Kano (BUK): General cut-off mark is 180. However, for courses in Faculties of Clinical Sciences and Pharmaceutical Sciences, the cut-off mark is 220 and above while for courses in Faculties of Allied Health Sciences, Dentistry and Law, the cut-off mark is 200 and above.

Nnamdi Azikiwe University, Awka (UNIZIK): 160 – 200 depending on the course
Ahmadu Bello University, Zaria (ABU): 180
Federal University of Technology Owerri (FUTO): 150
Abia State University Uturu (ABSU): 140

Delta State University, Abraka (DELSU): 150
University of Port-harcourt (UNIPORT): 150
Federal University Ndufu Alike (FUNAI): 150

Tai Solarin University of Education (TASUED): 170
Osun State University (UNIOSUN): 160
Federal University Otuoke (FUOTUOKE): 160

University of Medical Sciences, Ondo (UNIMED): 160
Ladoke Akintola University of Technology (LAUTECH): 160. However, all courses in the College of Health Sciences is 200.
Niger Delta University (NDU): 160 – 250 depending on the course
University of Maiduguri (UNIMAID): 150

Usman Dan Fodio University (UDUSOK): 140
The University of Sokoto (SSU): 140
University of Lagos (UNILAG): 200
Lagos State University (LASU): 190
University of Ilorin (UNILORIN): 180

Kogi State University (KSU): 160 – 220 depending on the course.
Adamawa State University (ADSU): 160 – 250 depending on the course

WAEC Food and Nutrition 2021 Objective Theory Question And Answer

2021 Food and Nutrition OBJ objective

1-10 CBAACBAADC

11-20 DAABBBDDBC

21-30 CDDDABBBBD

31-40 DDDCABDDCD

41-50 CDCDBABBBC

Food and Nutrition ESSAY Theory

1a- a legume is a plant of its fruit or seed in the family fabaceae. They fruit containing a shed or a pod

1b) bean: kidney beans
Lenstil

1c)
legumes are rich in protein
Legume provide fiber for heart and digestive health

Legumes help you manage your weight
Legumes is easy to add to your diet

1d)
baked beans
Balila

Soya milk
Pea butter

2a)
1. Long term storage of fresh produce (12 months+) without needing a refrigerator or freezer.
2. Environmentally friendly – using seasonally grown and locally sourced fresh produce, re-use preserving jars, reducing food packaging and reducing food miles.

3. Save money by buying in bulk and seasonally.

4. Flavour! Home canned food won’t contain artificial preservatives, BPA or other artificial ingredients.

These are provided for study purposes only.

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2021 WAEC Food and Nutrition Objective Essay Question And Answer

2021 Food and Nutrition OBJ objective

1-10 CBAACBAADC
11-20 DAABBBDDBC

21-30 CDDDABBBBD
31-40 DDDCABDDCD

41-50 CDCDBABBBC

Food and Nutrition ESSAY Theory

1a- a legume is a plant of its fruit or seed in the family fabaceae. They fruit containing a shed or a pod

1b) bean: kidney beans
Lenstil

1c)
legumes are rich in protein
Legume provide fiber for heart and digestive health

Legumes help you manage your weight
Legumes is easy to add to your diet

1d)
baked beans
Balila

Soya milk
Pea butter

2a)
1. Long term storage of fresh produce (12 months+) without needing a refrigerator or freezer.
2. Environmentally friendly – using seasonally grown and locally sourced fresh produce, re-use preserving jars, reducing food packaging and reducing food miles.

3. Save money by buying in bulk and seasonally.

4. Flavour! Home canned food won’t contain artificial preservatives, BPA or other artificial ingredients.

These are provided for study purposes only.

Bookmark this page and keep refreshing for updates.

2021 WAEC Food and Nutrition Question And Answer

2021 Food and Nutrition OBJ objective

1-10 CBAACBAADC
11-20 DAABBBDDBC

21-30 CDDDABBBBD
31-40 DDDCABDDCD

41-50 CDCDBABBBC

Food and Nutrition ESSAY Theory

1a- a legume is a plant of its fruit or seed in the family fabaceae. They fruit containing a shed or a pod

1b) bean: kidney beans
Lenstil

1c)
legumes are rich in protein
Legume provide fiber for heart and digestive health

Legumes help you manage your weight
Legumes is easy to add to your diet

1d)
baked beans
Balila

Soya milk
Pea butter

2a)
1. Long term storage of fresh produce (12 months+) without needing a refrigerator or freezer.
2. Environmentally friendly – using seasonally grown and locally sourced fresh produce, re-use preserving jars, reducing food packaging and reducing food miles.

3. Save money by buying in bulk and seasonally.

4. Flavour! Home canned food won’t contain artificial preservatives, BPA or other artificial ingredients.

These are provided for study purposes only.

Bookmark this page and keep refreshing for updates.

The eagerly awaited Luckiest Ball on Earth serieshas kicked off with golfers across the UAE vying for a ‘once in a lifetime’ opportunity to play alongside some of the biggest names in golf in the star-studded DP World Tour Championship, Dubai Pro-Am.

The Luckiest Ball on Earth competition has proven a big hit with the UAE’s amateur golfers since the initiative was first launched in 2011. The annual competition is open to all golfers who hold an Official Club Handicap recognised by the EGF (maximum 28 formen and juniors and 36 for ladies).

Qualifying tournaments will be held at 20 golf clubs across the Emirates until 22nd October, with the triumphant golfers booking their spot in the Grand Final at Jumeirah Golf Estates on 29th October 2021.

Prizes worth more than AED 300,000 are on offer including premium hospitality tickets and merchandise for the DP World Tour Championship. The overall male, female, and juniorwinner will receive a coveted place in the DP World Tour Championship Pro-Am taking place on November 16th.

“We are thrilled to announce the return of the Luckiest Ball on Earth competition, offering UAE golfers a unique opportunity to mix with some of the world’s best players,” said Tom Phillips, European Tour Head of Middle East. “We are extremely grateful for the ongoing support of the Emirates Golf Federation and the 20 qualifying clubs, which makes this wonderful local golf initiative possible. We urge golfers across the region to get down to their local qualifier – you never know when it might be your day!”

The DP World Tour Championship sees the top 50 players on the European Tour’s Race to Dubai competing for a prize fund of US$9 million. This year’s tournament will take place from the 18th – 21st November on the Earth Course,Jumeirah Golf Estates. Tickets for the event are now available.

List of clubs taking part in the Luckiest Ball on Earth competition:

 

Al Ghazal Golf Club	Abu Dhabi	Friday September 24
Sharjah Golf and Shooting Club	Sharjah	Saturday September 25
The Address Montgomerie Dubai	Dubai	Saturday September 25
Al Hamra Golf Club	Ras Al Khaimah	Friday October 1
Al Zorah Golf Club	Ajman	Friday October 1
Jumeirah Golf Estates	Dubai	FridayOctober 1
Arabian Ranches Golf Club	Dubai	Friday October 1
Al Ain Equestrian, Shooting & Golf Club	Al Ain	Friday October 1
Jebel Ali Golf Resort & Spa	Dubai	Saturday October 2
Dubai Creek Golf Club & Yacht Club	Dubai	Saturday October 2
Abu Dhabi Golf Club	Abu Dhabi	Saturday October 9
Saadiyat Beach Golf Club	Abu Dhabi	Saturday October 9
Trump International Golf Club	Dubai	Friday October 15
The Track Meydan	Dubai	Friday October 15
Tower Links Golf Club	Ras Al Khaimah	Friday October 15
The Els Club	Dubai	Friday October 15
Yas Links	Abu Dhabi	Saturday October 16
Dubai Hills	Dubai	Saturday October 16
Abu Dhabi City Golf Club	Abu Dhabi	Friday October 22
Emirates Golf Club	Dubai	Friday October 22

 

About the European Tour’s Race to Dubai

The Race to Dubai is the season-long competition to crown the European Tour’s Number One player. Celebrating the global connectivity of Dubai and the European Tour, the list of champions since 2009 reads like a Who’s Who of modern-era greats, including multiple titles for Rory McIlroy, Henrik Stenson and Lee Westwood.  Other winners include Jon Rahm, Francesco Molinari, Tommy Fleetwood, Martin Kaymer, and Luke Donald. Formerly known as the Order of Merit, points are accumulated based on a tournament points system with the winner awarded the prestigious Race to Dubai trophy at the conclusion of the DP World Tour Championship.

About the DP World Tour Championship, Dubai

The highest ranked players on the European Tour’s Race to Dubai are invited to contest the final event of the season, the US$9million DP World Tour Championship, Dubai – a Rolex Series event. Staged at Jumeirah Golf Estates, the warm weather conditions are perfect for both players and spectators. The Greg Norman-designed Earth course has a reputation for delivering dramatic finales and providing a stage for the biggest stars to shine. Double winners Matt Fitzpatrick, Rory McIlroy, Jon Rahm and Henrik Stenson head a list of champions since its 2009 launch also including Danny Willett and Lee Westwood.

About the Rolex Series

The Rolex Series is the premium event category on the European Tour’s International Schedule, comprising four tournaments in 2021, staged in a variety of world-class golfing locations each with a minimum prize fund of US$8 million and 8,000 Race to Dubai points available.

Showcasing innovation, enriched media, content and broadcast coverage, and a superior event experience for the world’s top players, the list of champions includes some of golf’s most distinguished names.

The Rolex Series was launched in 2017, coinciding with the 20th anniversary of Rolex’s enduring partnership with the European Tour.

In 2021, the Rolex Series comprises; The Abu Dhabi HSBC Championship (January 21-24), the Abdn Scottish Open (July 8-11) the BMW PGA Championship (September 9-12) and the season-ending DP World Tour Championship, Dubai (November 18-21), where the leading golfer on the Race to Dubai Rankings in partnership Rolex will be crowned.

About the European Tour

The European Tour is ‘Driving Golf Further’ through guiding principles of being innovative, inclusive and global.

Innovative: The European Tour is driving innovation in golf through the creation of award-winning content, pioneering tournament formats and the use of the latest technology and inventive fan engagement. We have recognised the need for golf to modernise for future fans and we are committed to engaging new audiences whilst respecting the tradition of our sport.

Inclusive: We are committed to include all who share a love for the game of golf. We are passionate about a closer collaboration with the women’s game, disability golf and promoting the health benefits of playing golf.

Global: Since the European Tour was formed in 1972, players from 36 different countries have won tournaments, while our live broadcast reaches more than 490 million homes in more than 150 countries every week, generating in excess of 2,200 global broadcast hours for each event. We also enjoy the support of many of the world’s leading business brands with Rolex, BMW, Callaway, DP World, Emirates, Workday and Zoom as Official Partners.

The European Tour also manages the developmental Challenge Tour and the Legends Tour (formerly known as the Staysure Tour) which is the men’s professional golf tour for members aged 50 and older.

The European Tour is also the Managing Partner of Ryder Cup Europe, the body which, alongside the PGA of America, administers golf’s greatest team contest, the Ryder Cup.

WAEC Health Science Question And Answer 2021

1. (a) (i) Give two reasons why food is cooked.
(ii) State three cooking methods.
(b) Mention one advantage and one disadvantage of each method stated in (a)(ii) above.
(c) Describe how each of the following methods helps to preserve food:

(i) freezing;
(ii) dehydration;
(ii) salting.

2. (a) (i) What are enzymes?
(ii) State five characteristics of enzymes.
(iii) Name two enzymes involved in carbohydrate digestion in the body.
(b) Name the end product of the digestion of the following classes of food:

(i) carbohydrates;
(ii) proteins;
(iii) fats.
(c) State two uses each of the following classes of food in the human body;
(i) proteins;

(ii) vitamins.
(d) State two benefits each of including the following food substances in the diet of
humans:

(i) roughage;
(ii) water.

3. (a) (i) What is posture?
(ii) State three causes of postural defects
(b) List three defects of the foot

(c) State two corrective measures for postural defects.

4. (a) List two natural sources of water.
(b) State three general uses of water by humans.

(c) Name the international health agencies/organizations associated with the following functions:
(i) standardization of drugs for international use;

(ii) performing first aid activities and training personnel in first aid;
(iii) provision of recreational facilities and equipment for school children;
(iv) providing information on the outbreak of epidemics;

(v) rehabilitation of victims of wars, floods, or drought.

5. (a) Mention the three-body forms in humans.
(b) State two features of each body form mentioned in (a) above.

(c) State one factor necessary for the maintenance of health.

6.

PAPER 2

1. (a) (i) What are enzymes?
(ii) State five characteristics of enzymes

(iii) Name two enzymes involved in carbohydrate digestion in the body

(b) Name the end-product of digestion of
(i) carbohydrates;
(ii) proteins;
(iii) fats.

(c) State two uses each of the following classes of food:
(i) proteins;

(ii) vitamins.

(d) State two ways each in which the following substances are important
in the diet of humans:
(i) Roughage;
(ii) Water.

2. (a) Explain the following terms:
(i) shock;
(ii) fainting.

(b) (i) State three symptoms of shock
(ii) Outline the steps taken in the first aid treatment of shock victims.

(c) Explain the following terms:
(i) kyphosis;
(ii) scoliosis.

(d) Explain the following terms associated with bone injuries:
(i) dislocation;
(ii) sprain.

3. (a) (i) What is an endocrine gland?
(ii) State three functions of adrenalin.

(b) State three effects of each of the following conditions in humans:
(i) over-secretion of thyroxin;
(ii) under-secretion of thyroxin.

(c) (i) Write HIV in full.
(ii) Distinguish between HIV and AIDS.

(d) State two methods each by which the vectors of the following diseases can be controlled:
(i) onchocerciasis;
(ii) schistosomiasis;

(iii) guinea worm.

1. The diagram below is an illustration of the male urine-genital system study it carefully and use it to answer questions 1(a) to 1(c)

(a) Name the parts labeled I to VIII
(b) State one function each of the parts labeled V, VI, and VIII
(c) Name three diseases associated with the system.

2. The diagram below illustrates the skeleton system of humans
Study it carefully and use it to answer questions 2(a) to 2(d).

(a) Name the parts labeled I to VI
(b) Mention one labeled part which represents a bone in the
(i) axial skeleton;
(ii) appendicular skeleton.
(c) Name the joint between

(i) II and VI
(ii) IV and V.
(d) State three ways in which the skeletal system is important to the human body.

3. (a) (i) What is posture?
(ii) State three causes of postural defects

(b) List three defects of the foot
(c) State two corrective measures for postural defects.

4. (a) List two natural sources of water.
(b) State three general uses of water by humans.

(c) Name the international health agencies/organizations associated with the following functions:
(i) standardization of drugs for international use;
(ii) performing first aid activities and training personnel in first aid;

(iii) provision of recreational facilities and equipment for school children;
(iv) providing information on outbreak of epidemics;
(v) rehabilitation of victims of wars, floods or drought.

5. (a) Mention the three-body forms in humans.
(b) State two features of each body form mentioned in (a) above.
(c) State one factor necessary for the maintenance of health.

PAPER 2

1. (a) (i) What are enzymes?
(ii) State five characteristics of enzymes
(iii) Name two enzymes involved in carbohydrate digestion in the body

(b) Name the end-product of digestion of
(i) carbohydrates;
(ii) proteins;
(iii) fats

(c) State two uses each of the following classes of food:
(i) proteins;
(ii) vitamins.

(d) State two ways each in which the following substances are important
in the diet of humans:
(i) Roughage;
(ii) Water.

2. (a) Explain the following terms:
(i) shock;
(ii) fainting.

(b) (i) State three symptoms of shock
(ii) Outline the steps taken in the first aid treatment of shock victims.

(c) Explain the following terms:
(i) kyphosis;
(ii) scoliosis.

(d) Explain the following terms associated with bone injuries:
(i) dislocation;
(ii) sprain.

3. (a) (i) What is an endocrine gland?
(ii) State three functions of adrenalin.

(b) State three effects of each of the following conditions in humans:
(i) over-secretion of thyroxin;
(ii) under-secretion of thyroxin.

(c) (i) Write HIV in full.
(ii) Distinguish between HIV and AIDS.

(d) State two methods each by which the vectors of the following diseases can be controlled:
(i) onchocerciasis;
(ii) schistosomiasis;
(iii) guinea worm.

These are provided for study purposes only.

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2021 WAEC Physics Questions And Answers

1-10: DACAACBBCC

11-20: BDBABBACAC

21-30: BCBACBBACA

31-40: BDDDDACCCA

41-50: AAAABBCBBC

Essay answers

(1)
Original length Lo= 3m
Extension e = 310 = 3*3= 9m

F×e
F=ke where k = 982.3NM-²
F=982.3*9=8,840.7N

The five that produce the extension F = 8.840.7N

(2a)
Flat metal plate are mainly used to collect heat for space heating in solar panels for heat transfer.

(2b)
Thermal insulator is used for reduction of heat transfer between objects in thermal contact

(2c)
tubes is a device that controls electric current flow in a high vacuum between electrodes to which an electric potential difference has been applied.

(3a)
highly purified silica glass.

(3b)
To confine the optical signal in the core the refractive index of the core must be greater than that of the cladding.

(5)
Escape velocity = VE
Radius of the earth = R

Acceleration due to gravity = 10ms²
Escape velocity Be=√2R

VE=√2*10R
VE=√20R

(6)
Angle at horizontal θ = 30°
Time of light , T = 25sec

Velocity of projection u = ?
But T=2using sinθ/g

25= 2u*sin30/10
25=0.5u/5

0.5u=125
U=125/0.5

=250ms-¹

(7)
(i)Coherence

(ii)Directionality
(iii)Monochromatic

(8ai)
A torque is defined as a measure of the force that can cause an object to rotate about an axis

WAEC Physics Questions 2021 and Answers
(8aii)

Factors that determine torque are;
– The magnitude of the force

– The radius
– The angle between the force and the lever arm

(8bi)
Free fall simply means the act of which are objects fall freely under the influence of gravitational force. An object under free fall does not encounter air resistance

(8bii)
Height of tower H = 40.0m
Velocity v = 10.0m/s, time t= ? , g=10.0m/s

Using the relation
S= ut + 1/2gt^2

H= ut + 1/2gt^2
40= 10t + 1/2*10t^2
4= t + t^2/2

= t^2 + 2t – 8=0 ( solving quadratically)
= (t+4)(t-2)=0

t+4=0 or t-2=0
t= -4 or t=2

Therefore time to fall on the ground t=2s

(8c)
R.d of oil =R1 = 0.72

R.d of water = R2=1.00

R.d of liquid= R1/R2= 0.72/1 = 0.72

R.d = density of wood(P1)/density of water(P2)
0.72=P1/1.00

P1= 0.72*1.00=0.72g/cm³
But density of wood= mass of wood/volume of wood

0.72= mass of wood/8*8*8
Mass of wood = 0.72*512 = 368.64g

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West African Examinations Council (WAEC) in Ghana, with the country’s Ministry of education will now start setting multiple versions of the same WAEC examination questions to reduce malpractice.

Dr. Yaw Osei Adutwum said this at a media briefing after touring some selected centres in the ongoing West African Senior School Certificate Examination (WASSCE) in Accra yesterday.

Dr. Yaw Osei Adutwum, the sector Minister said that 10 versions of the same examination paper would be set and that will make it difficult for students to cheat. He said same questions will be set but in different numbers on the question papers of each candidate.

At the centers visited, which include Frafraha Community Senior High School (SHS), West Africa and Kwabenya SHSs among others, Dr. Adutwum said the measures will form part of efforts by the government to ensure the eradication of examination malpractices in Ghana.

According to the minister, some people out of the crave for money set up rogue websites through which they sold fake WAEC questions to unsuspecting students who out of ignorance also patronised such sites for a fee.

“With that and other measures being put in place, it would be difficult for candidates to patronise such sites.” He said.

Dr. Adutwum interacted with some of the candidates before they started their English II examination. He urged the candidates to remain focused and be disciplined during the examination since anyone caught cheating would be prosecuted because it was against the laws of the land.

Dr. Adutwum said candidates should be confident, focused and avoid any action that would affect the sanctity of the examination.

WAEC Literature In English 2021 Essay Objective Question And Answer

Lit in english questions and answers.

SECTION A OBJ

Click here for lastest answers 

1. Read the extract below and answer the question.

That age is best which is the first
When youth and blood are warmer
But being spent, the worse, and worst
Times still succeed the former.

The rhyme scheme is known as

Click here for lastest answers 

A. abba
B. abab
C. aabb
D. bbaac
ANSWER: B (abab)

2. Read the extract below and answer the question.

That age is best which is the first
When youth and blood are warmer
But being spent, the worse, and worst
Times still succeed the former.

This kind of rhyme scheme is known as

Click here for lastest answers 

A. alternate
B. irregular
C. free verse
D. couplet
ANSWER: A (alternate)

3. A poem of 14 lines is known as a

A. quatrain
B. octave
C. sestet
D. sonnet
ANSWER: D (sonnet)

4. Read the extract below and answer the question.

That age is best which is the first
When youth and blood are warmer
But being spent, the worse, and worst
Times still succeed the former.

A poem of four lines is known as a

Click here for lastest answers 

A. sonnet
B. couplet
C. sestet
D. quatrain
ANSWER: D (quatrain)

5.Pick the odd item from the list

A. prose
B. poetry
C. drama
D. tragedy
ANSWER: D (tragedy)

6. A play on words is

A. innuendo
B. humour
C. pun
D. jest
ANSWER: C (pun)

7.A play is fully realized when it is

A. studied
B. memorized
C. acted
D. read
ANSWER: C (acted)

8.Read the extract below and answer this question.

The pattering rain was kicking up little
explosions of dust in the glade.He heard the
faint whisper of the stream as it stole across
the land and disappeared into the bush.

The figure of speech underlined in line 1 is

A. assonance
B. consonance
C. onomatopoeia
D. alliteration
ANSWER: C (onomatopoeia)

9.The underline expression in line regular pattern of

A. vowels and consonants
B. long and short words
C. stressed and unstressed syllables
D. stressed syllables and rhymes
ANSWER: B (long and short words)

10. Which of the following is an African poet?

A. Dennis Brutus
B. William Wordsworth
C. Rober Frost
D. W.B.Yeats
ANSWER: A (Dennis Brutus)

Today’s Literature objectives questions and Answers for WAEC Loading…

WAEC Literature Practice Past Questions
All the candidates are expected to attempt the following questions:

Which of the following is common to all forms of literature?
A) language

B) chorus

C) action

D) narrator

2. The three major forms of literature are

A) tragedy,comedy, tragi-comedy

B) poetry,drama,folktales

C) drama,lyric,prose fiction

D) poetry, drama,prose

3. Beauty in poetry depends mainly on

expression and rhythm
length and theme
vowels and consonants
mood and verse form
4. Read the extract below and answer this question.

But the towering earth was tired of sitting in one position. She moved, suddenly, and the houses crumbled, the mountains heaved horribly, and the work of a million years was lost. The predominant figure of speech in the above extracts is

Oxymoron
Metaphor
Simile
Personification
5. In a play, a long speech by a single character in the presence of other characters is called

A. soliloguy
B. monologue
C. aside
D. prologue
6. A play that is full of exaggerated ridicule and laughter is called

A. farce
B. comedy
C. tragi-comedy
D. masque
7. Pick the odd item from the list below

A. tragedy
B. comedy
C. epilogue
D. tragi-comedy
8. A group of actors in a play is called

A. characters
B. cast
C. chorus
D. prompters
9, A novel is usually written in

A. prose
B. verse
C. scenes
D. stanzas
10. What distinguishes a novel from a play is

A. characters
B. setting
C. narration
D. theme

Essay

There are three papers in Waec English Literature – Papers 1 & 2 and then 3, all of which must be taken on their assigned dates. Paper 1 & 2 (Objective and Prose) is a combined paper that will be taken at one sitting from 9:30 am to 10:45 am while Paper 3 (Drama and Poetry) will be written same day from 2:00 pm to 4:30 pm which marks the end of the WAEC Literature in English exam.

Note that below are the questions from Waec literature past questions and answers syllabus that we feel are likely questions for SSCE preparation.

WAEC Literature Answers 2021 for Prose and Objectives.

PAPER 2 (Prose)
Answer ONE question only from each section. Write your answers on the answer booklet provided.

SECTION A (African Prose)

Amma Darko – Faceless;
1. Examine the role and significance of Slyv Po in the novel.
2. Show how women are discriminated against in the novel.

Bayo Adebowale – Lonely Days
3. What impression do you form of Yaremi in the novel?
4. Examine the attitude of Kufi people towards death in the novel.

SECTION B (Non-African Prose)

Richard Wright – Native Son;
5. What are Bigger’s reasons for his bitterness against the white man in the novel?
6. How does the media respond to the disappearance of Mary Dalton in the novel?

Horace Walpole – The Castle of Otranto;
7. Comment on the issue of male dominance in the novel.
8. What does Theodore’s encounter with Isabella in the cavern in the forest reveal about his character?

PAPER 1 (Objective) Answer ALL questions in this section.

 

15. ________ in my rate” means
A. i’m very certain
B. so far as I can see

C. there’s no doubt
D. as it appears.

16. A poem that describes the simple life of rural people is called _____ A. eulogy B. ode C. lyrics D. pastoral.

17. Choose the option that has the same consonant sound as the one represented by the letter(s) underlined Vice A. cat B. dress C. show D. chalk.

18. In literature, repetition is used essentially for A. rhyme B. suspense C. allusion D. emphasis.
This question is based on Bayo Adebowale’s Lonely Days.

19. The cap-picking ceremony is to A. break the strong will of Yaremi B. make Yaremi remarry C. establish that she is wicked D. prove that Ajumobi is not the best.

20. A Poem that celebrates an object, person, or event is A. a sonnet B. a dirge C. an ode D. a balled.

21. _______ In literature is the sequential arrangement of events in creative work. A. Cast B. Summary C. Flaw D. Plot.
This question is based on Frank Ogodo Ogbeche’s Harvest of Corruption.

22. Who impregnated Aloho? A. The Commissioner B. Chief Haladu C. Justice Odili D. Inspector Inaku.
This question is based on Faceless by Amma Darko

23. What is the reason that caused Odarley’s mother to send him away from home?
A. she chose to go to the street
B. her mother remarried

C. she steals her mother things
D. she wants to poison her boyfriend.

Read the extract and answer question X: We two, my lord. Will guard your person while you take your rest, And watch your safety. Y: Thank you – Wondrous heavy. (Act II, Scene One, lines 184 – 187)

24. The ”two” later plot to…
A. kill all the other characters

B. escape from the island
C. kill Prospero and Miranda

D. kill Alonso and Gonzalo.

25. Carrying a heavy bundle of tightly wrapped bits and pieces of junk drooping over his face”.
The excerpt above exemplifies _______?

A. Irony B. synecdoche C. symbolism D. euphemism.

WAEC Literature Drama and Poetry 2021.

PAPER 3 (Drama and Poetry)
Answer ONE question only from each section. Write your answers on the answer booklet provided.

SECTION A (African Drama)

Dele Charley – The Blood of a Stranger.
1. How does love for wealth and power influence the actions of the characters in the play.

2. Examine Wara’s role in the development of the plot. Frank Ogodo Ogbeche – Harvest of Corruption.
3. Consider Aloho as a foil to Ogeyi 4. How does Chief Haladu Ade-Amaka manipulate justice to his own advantage?

SECTION B (Non-African Drama) Lorraine Hansberry – A Raisin in the Sun.

5. To what extent are the dreams of the Younger family fulfilled in the play?
6. Discuss the living conditions of the Younger family. Goldsmith – She Stoops to Conquer. 7. Compare the relationship between Tony and Constance with that between young Marlow and Kate

8. What makes Mr. Hardcastle a humorous character?

SECTION C (African Poetry)

9. Relate the title of the poem Ambush to the theme of frustrated dreams. 10. Comment on the poets’ use of imagery in The Dining Table.

SECTION D (Non-African Poetry)
11. Comment on Birches as a descriptive poem.

12. Examine the relationship between God and man in The Pulley.

THE ALBINOS AND BLIND CANDIDATES ARE TO BE GIVEN 15 MINUTES EXTRA TIME ACROSS ALL SUBJECTS.

Waec Literature Books – Reading Text from 2021 SSCE Syllabus:

Here are reading materials from the waec literature syllabus 2021.

African Prose

1. Amma Darko – Faceless
2. Bayo Adebowale – Lonely Days.

Non-African Prose

1. Richard Wright – Native Son
2. Horace Walpole – The Castle of Otranto
3. Patience Swift – The Last Goodman
4. *William Shakespeare – OTHELLO.

Non-African Drama

1. Oliver Goldsmith – She Stoops to Conquer
2. Lorraine Hansberry – A Raisin in the Sun.

African Drama

1. Frank Ogodo Ogbeche – Harvest of Corruption
2. Dele Charley – The Blood of a Stranger.

African Poetry

1. Birago Drop – Vanity
2. Gbemisola Adeoti – Ambush
3. Gabriel Okara – Piano and Drums
4. Gbanabam Hallowell – The Dinning Table
5. Lenrie Peter – The Panic of Growing Older
6. Kofi Awoonor – The Anvil and the Hammer.

Non-African Poetry

1. Alfred Tennyson – Crossing the Bar
2. George Herbert – The pulley
3. William Blake – The School Boy
4. William Morris – The Proud King
5. Robert Frost Birches – Birches
6. William Shakespeare – Shall I compare thee to a Summer’s Day?

Note: (i) The Unseen Prose passage for Paper 1 shall be about 120 – 150 words long.
(ii) Only context questions shall be set on the Shakespearean text. The context questions will test such items as theme, characterization, style, and setting in the Shakespearean text.
(iii) No essay question shall be set on the Shakespearean text.

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